On May 9, 10:21 am, veritas wrote:
> F Murtz wrote:
> > If an idiot in a car changes lane in front of bicycles and then
> > suddenly brakes are the bicycles that run into him liable for the damage
> > to his car? Usually the vehicle in the rear is at fault.
>
> Not if the car driver could prove it - it does, however, raise another
> question tho; if a third person was killed or injured as a result of the
> cyclist's reckless actions - where is his (C)TP insurance to cover the victim/s?
I'll assume you really mean't to say "a cyclists actions", rather than
"the cyclists reckless actions"
then..
Who says they weren't insured for third party damage?
There is a whole lot of ignorance and idiotic assumptions going on in
this thread.
duncan |