Rod wrote in
news:64qcftF2b41ntU1@mid.individual.net:
> bealoid wrote:
>> Rod wrote in news:64p8sdF2d09opU1
>> @mid.individual.net:
>>
>>> Partner
>>> has bought at least two orders of prescription-only medications by
>>> that route.
>>
>> if Partner doesn't have a prescription for those meds isn't Partner
>> breaking the law?
>
> No. Both pharmaceuticals are available in the UK on prescription. One
> is only available on a "named patient" basis. (She has since received
> a bona fide NHS prescription for the same product but it has to be
> specially ordered.) The other is only available in relatively large
> tablets in the UK and, even with splitting, is difficult to get to an
> appopriate dose for her.
>
> It is perfectly legal to order from abroad for personal use. Until
> someone tells me why it isn't. :-)
Hmm.
This Home office page says
"Medicines Act 1968
This law governs the manufacture and supply of medicine. There are three
categories:
* Prescription Only drugs can be sold by a pharmacist if prescribed
by a doctor
* Pharmacy medicines may be sold by a pharmacist without prescription
* General sales list medicines may be sold without a prescription in
any shop
Possession of Prescription Only medicines without a prescription is a
serious offence. Drugs such as amyl nitrite, GHB and ketamine are
regulated under the Medicines Act."
http://drugs.homeoffice.gov.uk/drugs-laws/other-laws/
But I can't seem to find anything that backs that up. There's probably
something about schedules somewhere - so i guess what schedule the med is
in.
Kind regards. |