On 9 May, 00:20, "steve robinson"
wrote:
> someone_else_of_cou...@hotmail.co.uk wrote:
> > Hi,
>
> > I'd like to pose a probably defunct question to you all. It is very
> > simple, so I will state a really obvious case for ease of readers:
>
> > I work for a company that owns all I do (contract states something
> > like anything produced is owned by us)
>
> > If I produce something criminal - are they liable? I.e. I own and run
> > a website with dodgy photos, who owns the property.
>
> > At what point does owning IP transfer to being responsible for it, I'd
> > be interested to any links on the matter.
>
> > Obviously I have no intent on criminal, the example is just a point,
> > but highlights to me a blurry line on ownership.
>
> > Thanks
> > Someone
>
> No as you have commited a criminal act
>
> --
ok, not criminal, but actionable (not sure if that's the correct
term), my question is towards liability and ownership - does one imply
the other? |
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