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Subject: Re: Illegal to have ... with a 16-year-old abroad... Posted on: 12 May 2008 20:35:12 GMT

In article ,
Alex Heney wrote:
>>Why is the reference always "he"?
>
>Because the legislators (quite reasonably) don't want to have to say
>"he or she" every single time, so they included in the Interpretation
>Act a definition that references to the male gender always include the
>female and vice versa unless that is not possible, or is actively
>specified not to be the case.

They could easily alternate "he" and "she" without wasting
that much ink.

Francis